CTAL-TM practice question 20 of 30

Which of the following statements correctly describes a 'depth-first approach' to managing risk based testing? SELECT ONE OPTION

Full set: 228 questions
Answer options
A: The highest risks are tested in more depth than the lowest risks.
B: A sample of tests is selected to ensure coverage of every risk item at least once.
C: The lowest risk tests should only be run once the highest risk tests have passed.
D: All of the highest-risk tests are run before any lower risk tests, and tests are run in strict risk order. Correct answer
Correct Answer:
D. All of the highest-risk tests are run before any lower risk tests, and tests are run in strict risk order.
Explanation

In risk-based testing, test execution can be organized using different sequencing strategies to optimize risk mitigation. A 'depth-first' approach involves executing tests in strict risk order. This means that all tests associated with the highest-risk items are executed completely before the team moves on to execute any tests for lower-risk items. This strategy ensures that the most critical and high-risk areas of the application are thoroughly tested as early as possible in the execution phase, maximizing early risk reduction.

Why Incorrect

A. This describes risk-based effort allocation (testing higher risks more thoroughly), not the 'depth-first' execution sequencing strategy.
B. This describes a 'breadth-first' approach, where a sample of tests is run across all risk levels to gain broad, early visibility before diving deeper.
C. Test execution order is based on risk priority, not on whether previous tests have passed; blocked or failed tests do not necessarily prevent executing other tests.

References

- ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level Syllabus - Test Manager (2012), Section 5.3.4 "Test Execution", p. 45.

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